4 mm has a high negative predictive value) or a direct tissue sample via endometrial biopsy. Reassurance (Option A) is dangerous given the malignancy risk. Hormonal therapy (Option C) should never be initiated before ruling out cancer. Hysterectomy (Option D) is a definitive treatment and cannot be scheduled without a confirmed histological diagnosis. Question 3
This patient is presenting with eclampsia, defined by the new onset of tonic-clonic seizures in a patient with preeclampsia. Magnesium sulfate is the gold standard, first-line agent used to both prevent and treat eclamptic seizures. It is significantly more effective than phenytoin or diazepam (Options A and D) and carries a lower risk of maternal respiratory depression. While delivery is the ultimate cure for preeclampsia/eclampsia, the patient must first be stabilized medically. Performing a cesarean section during an active seizure or before stabilizing the maternal airway and blood pressure (Option C) significantly increases maternal and fetal morbidity. Question 2 Obstetrics And Gynecology 1500 Multiple Choice Questions
Keywords: Obstetrics And Gynecology 1500 Multiple Choice Questions, OB/GYN board review, MCQ bank for women's health, CREOG prep, USMLE obstetrics questions. 4 mm has a high negative predictive value)
A 48-year-old woman undergoes a routine screening pelvic ultrasound, which incidentally reveals an asymptomatic, well-circumscribed, intramural uterine mass measuring 4 cm with posterior acoustic shadowing. The mass is consistent with a uterine leiomyoma (fibroid). She reports normal, regular menstrual periods and no pelvic pressure or pain. What is the most appropriate management plan for this patient? A. Total abdominal hysterectomy B. Myomectomy C. Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) agonists D. Clinical observation and reassurance Answer Key and Detailed Explanations Question 1 Hysterectomy (Option D) is a definitive treatment and